I have heard the argument repeated again and again and again and again that homosexuality is not immoral, at least for certain people with unusual sexual desires, because such people have no sexual (and "romantic") desire toward a member of the opposite sex, only of their own sex (in case [for some reason] clarification is necessary, an example is a man not having sexual [or "romantic"] attraction toward a woman, but having such desires for a man). One assumption required for this argument, of course, is that the basis of sex and marriage should be desire, and not to have a fulfilling and moral life.
But why did God tell humanity to "be fruitful and multiply?" Why does God expect a man and woman to form a proper (moral and ideal according to his standards) family? Did God say "be fruitful and multiply, as long as it brings you pleasure"? No, in Bereshis (Genesis) 9:1, God simply says [Chabad.org's translation], "And God blessed Noah and his sons, and He said to them: 'Be fruitful and multiply and fill the earth.'" There is no mention of a condition or special stipulation.
Similarly, the prohibition of sex between a man and a man listed in the Talmud as being a part of the seven laws' prohibition of forbidden sex does not contain a special condition or stipulation. To make up some idea about the prohibition not applying to people with homosexual desires (the primary [but not only] demographic of people that the command is meant for; I mean, the point of God commanding something is that people would be violating it) is to become some sort of "prophet," receiving some details of God's commandments that he never spoke to Adam (to whom God originally commanded the six laws, before the seventh was added), Noach (to whom God commanded the seven laws originally), or Moshe. But because God never spoke to such a person, they are a false prophet, and also a liar.
And, in fact, I think the prohition of sex between a man and a man teaches an important lesson about the proper reason for sex between a man and a woman as well. The basis for proper sex appears to not be desire, because then it should allow homosexual sex, but to live up to God's standards, to be moral, to properly fulfill one's purpose in the world, and to have a proper family. And God never said, "do things that pleasure you"; what he commands or instructs ("be fruitful and multiply" isn't a commandment for gentiles [it is for Jews, though], but still an instruction on how to morally and properly live a life; something can be moral while still not being a straight-up commandment) is supposed to be done for a selfless, purposeful reason.
As I've said before in various posts, I have had, and still have, a "crush" on someone: a girl (I would say that the word 'woman' applies, because I think 13-year-olds can be women; I know, crazy). And I know that the chance of me ever marrying this person (fortunately) is effectively 0%. But, for the sake of argument, let's assume that I could have the chance to marry her and advance my desire to the ultimate point (starting a family). The fact that I have desire is absolutely not a sufficient reason to marry someone, even if that other person reciprocates it. Why? Because if I marry someone, I want them to share my values and foundational principles of God, the seven laws, Jewish tradition, to also live consistently with them, to be a wise person, and to be a person that properly complements myself (a marriage is supposed to be a union where both members complement each other to complete each other's existence), and that I properly complement. Not every woman fits (in fact, very, very few do) those requirements for myself, and, again, desire, even from both parties, cannot be the only factor for deciding to marry.
Finally, if desire was the only factor that should be considered, then a marriage between a righteous man and a murderer, an idolator, a complete idiot, or the like, would be fine. But it's not. And, in fact, a "righteous" man cannot marry certain evil people (on the extreme end, this includes murderers, but much more mildly evil people are included as well) and still be righteous at the end.
Oh, sorry! I forgot the god (idol) of "love and peace"! Silly me! Nevermind, marriage beween two men or two women must be right because the god known as "love and peace" said so. I better retract all I said, lest I be possibly stoned and ridiculed by the "progressives" and elites!
[Side note: I've heard before that the True God, God himself, commanded love for and acceptance of homosexual relations, despite him prohibiting it and calling it an abomination. They cite Vayikra 19:18, which includes the sentence "love your neighbor as yourself" (which they basically use as a propaganda slogan)... But I guess they forgot the VERY PREVIOUS VERSE, Vayikra 19:17, which says [from Chabad.org's translation] "You shall not hate your brother in your heart. You shall surely rebuke your fellow, but you shall not bear a sin on his account." Absolutely and utterly vacuous...]